Could you play global 42 with the balance mod or is OOB just right? I didn’t see a BM3 map for the global 1942 and was wondering if anyone has tried it.
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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As for your comment about “escaping” from the risk of Kamikazes by not bringing the ships there, I am referring to the scenario that the ship starts in the sea zone but there was also to be an amphibious assault from that sea zone. Was that unclear?No, pretty clear. But the ships must have been brought to a Kamikaze seazone at any time before. Whenever you bring ships to a Kamikaze seazone they are exposed to that risk, in case any action that triggers a Kamikaze strike will be taken.
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Hopefully someone can help me with this, I remember there being a rule that Russia can take control of allied units in Russia, supposed to represent lend lease. Is that just a first edition rule? I can’t seem to find it in the rule book.
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There is no lend lease in Global 40.
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Hopefully someone can help me with this, I remember there being a rule that Russia can take control of allied units in Russia, supposed to represent lend lease. Is that just a first edition rule? I can’t seem to find it in the rule book.
Sounds like a house rule to me. That could also allow you to collect the Lend Lease NO for SZ125, Archangel and no allied units in USSR.
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Hopefully someone can help me with this, I remember there being a rule that Russia can take control of allied units in Russia, supposed to represent lend lease. Is that just a first edition rule? I can’t seem to find it in the rule book.
This is the lend-lease-related rule in Global 2nd ed. (the same in first edition):
@rulebook:
When the Soviet Union Is at War in Europe:
- 5 IPCs if the convoy in sea zone 125 is free of Axis warships, Archangel is controlled by the Soviet Union, and
there are no units belonging to other Allied powers present in any territories originally controlled by the Soviet
Union. Theme: National prestige and access to Allied Lend-Lease material.
- 5 IPCs if the convoy in sea zone 125 is free of Axis warships, Archangel is controlled by the Soviet Union, and
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Hopefully someone can help me with this, I remember there being a rule that Russia can take control of allied units in Russia, supposed to represent lend lease. Is that just a first edition rule? I can’t seem to find it in the rule book.
What you’re probably thinking about is one one of the optional National Advantages in A&A Revised (2004). The original A&A Europe (1999) also had this rule.
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What you’re probably thinking about is one one of the optional National Advantages in A&A Revised (2004). The original A&A Europe (1999) also had this rule.
Yes a NA for revised game. I use it in my WW2 40 game.
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I noticed in the Pacific rules when Japan declares war unprovoked on the US, Britain, or Anzac the US collects 30 bonus IPC’s but I did not see this in the global portion of the political situation rules for the US. Does the US still get this bonus in Global? Sorry if this is a noob question.
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I noticed in the Pacific rules when Japan declares war unprovoked on the US, Britain, or Anzac the US collects 30 bonus IPC’s but I did not see this in the global portion of the political situation rules for the US. Does the US still get this bonus in Global? Sorry if this is a noob question.
They do not get this bonus in global. Sorry.
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They do not get this bonus in global. Sorry.
Thanks for letting me know.
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Ah ok thanks everyone for clearing that up for me, I remember playing games where that was a rule but I couldnt remember what game.
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can Germany blitz through NW Persia if still pro-allied neutral?
Or must they stop?
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It can, Karl.
Germany can’t Blitz a Pro Axis; instead it has to stop. -
Thanks
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https://www.axisandallies.org/forums/index.php?topic=30776.75
You can blitz unfriendly neutrals. Germany can blitz through NW Persia when it’s pro-Allies
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The following situation needs clarification:
A German submarine and a British battleship are sharing a sea zone. As the UK, I want to attack that submarine with a destroyer and a fighter, but I would prefer to leave the battleship out of the battle so I can retreat it. However, if I am attacking that submarine, I am forced to use the battleship in the fight, correct? Or could I move the battleship out first as a combat move? There is the rule that says that a ship may move away from a hostile sea zone as a combat move, but technically a submarine does not make a sea zone hostile.In short, I would not be able to send the battleship away, but instead it would have to fight, correct?
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@Charles:
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In short, I would not be able to send the battleship away, but instead it would have to fight, correct?Indeed, the “Sea Units Starting in Hostile Sea Zones”-rules do not apply in your scenario.
So you can only keep your battleship out of the battle by moving it away by a rules-compliant combat move.
That means attack somewhere else or support an amphibious assault somewhere else.
If a combat move is not possible in your scenario, the battleship will join the battle.HTH :-)
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Thanks. I was quite angry when this happened to me and another player pointed it out. Then I ended up finding a better move, leaving the submarine behind. In my case, I wanted to retreat the battleship to a port so I had no alternative but to give up the attack. Good to know.
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@P@nther:
@Charles:
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In short, I would not be able to send the battleship away, but instead it would have to fight, correct?Indeed, the “Sea Units Starting in Hostile Sea Zones”-rules do not apply in your scenario.
So you can only keep your battleship out of the battle by moving it away by a rules-compliant combat move.
That means attack somewhere else or support an amphibious assault somewhere else.
If a combat move is not possible in your scenario, the battleship will join the battle.HTH :-)
Hmm, I was assuming that the combat triggered the rule. How annoying!
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A Fighter Scramble question has come up in a game I am playing. The sea zone I want to enter is empty, but there is an adjacent enemy territory with an airbase and fighter(s) in it. There is to be no amphibious assault attempted. If a sea zone is empty, is it considered hostile, when it is adjacent to a territory with an enemy airbase and fighter? If it is hostile, then I could only move surface ships in during combat movement, and therefore the fighter could scramble to defend. If the empty sea zone is NOT considered hostile, then my movement of surface ships into the empty zone could only take place during NON-combat movement, and therefore would be unopposed (no scramble).
Is the empty sea zone in this case hostile or non-hostile, and is my logic correct?
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