tx Krieghund
I know Battleship bombardment is limited to the number of troops offloading from a transport during an amphibious assault, but is this before or after coastal artillery fire?
Ex. 3 French infantry and 1 French artillery with 2 battleships assault 1 Ottoman infantry and 5 Ottoman artillery in Albania. If 3 or 4 coastal shots hit, are the French limited to 1 or 0 bombardment shots, respectively?
Thanks in advance.
Both battleships bombard, regardless of how many units make it to shore. Just because they don’t make it ashore doesn’t mean they didn’t offload.
After reading the Kriegs answers thread I had a question about this post:
"Q.
If France moves into Spanish Morroco on Turn 1, no units activate, since it’s a colony, correct? I’m pretty sure the answer is yes but just making sure.
A.
Correct."
1. So America can basically walk into Spanish Morroco and gain the 1 IPC without having to fight anything?
2. The same rule doesn’t apply for Ethiopia because it has a large symbol on it, therefore anyone entering it would have to fight the 1 inf and 1 art?
3. Are there any other neutral territories that don’t mobilize a force beside Spanish Morroco and the Balearic Islands?
4. Can America take over Spanish Morroco before being at war?
1. Yes.
2. Correct.
3. No.
4. No.
If a German cruiser moves into SZ1 when USA is still neutral but then attacks an American ship there in the combat phase does it have to roll for mines retrospectively?
No.
Krieghund when you get asked a question that is clearly in the rulebook do you ask yourself if the person even read the rulebook? or have you just gotten used to silly questions sometimes?
THIS IS NOT ABOUT ANY QUESTION ON THIS TREAD OR FORUM. IT’S ME WONDERING.
While I agree that the rulebook need a good going over before asking, that rulebook is not well organized. And an index would do wonders.
Why question is a general question not something about a specific game. and I’m talking about questions like “I read the rulebook and can’t find it what are all the dice for?” type question.
If a German cruiser moves into SZ1 when USA is still neutral but then attacks an American ship there in the combat phase does it have to roll for mines retrospectively?
KH: No
But if the Cruiser was accompanied by a loaded transport and you intended to invade America you’d have to declare the intention in advance, so this would make it in effect an act of war and activate the minefield, yes?
Yes.
Why would it make a difference if the land was being attacked or not? Doesn’t Germany have to declare war at the beginning of its turn (like in all the other games that have neutral powers). This would be before the movement phase so this should render all US units hostel, including their mined sz’s.
No. There are no “declarations of war” in this game. The US is only brought into the war before its fourth turn if a hostile act (as detailed in the rules) is committed against it. Unlike a sea attack, an amphibious assault must be announced during the movement phase.
After reading the Kriegs answers thread I had a question about this post:
"Q.
If France moves into Spanish Morroco on Turn 1, no units activate, since it’s a colony, correct? I’m pretty sure the answer is yes but just making sure.A.
Correct."1. So America can basically walk into Spanish Morroco and gain the 1 IPC without having to fight anything?
…
1. Yes.
…
This is not how I understand the rules. Morocco is a British colony and thus can’t be taken over by the USA. Krieghund, where in the rules is your reply supported? We’ve been playing colonies controlled by major powers, such as Morocco contrllled by Britain, can’t be taken over by allies, but colonies not controlled by major powers, such as Belgian Congo, can be taken over and controlled by allies.
Morocco is not British, it is Spanish. Check the map, not the rulebook.
This is not how I understand the rules. Morocco is a British colony and thus can’t be taken over by the USA.
Morocco is a French colony and can’t be taken over by the USA (unless being recaptured from the Central Powers while Paris is enemy-held). However, the question concerned Spanish Morocco, which is a colony of neutral Spain, and thus fair game for both sides.
No. There are no “declarations of war” in this game. The US is only brought into the war before its fourth turn if a hostile act (as detailed in the rules) is committed against it. Unlike a sea attack, an amphibious assault must be announced during the movement phase.
OK if US is still neutral, when would you announce the amphib? At the beginning of the movement phase (before you move any units), or “during” the movement phase as you get into position next to the land?
How would it work if the neutral US has a cruiser in sz 2, but has no surface war ships in sz1 (next to coast). Could I move my German transport from sz 7 past the neutral US cruiser, and then announce my intentions to do an amphib as I get to the coast (would still technically be in the movement phase). I would think this wouldn’t be allowed as all movement is considered at the same time, but how can you announce an amphib before you get to the adjacent sz?
The amphib rules go into detail about clearing the sz of enemy surface war ships when it is adjacent to the land battle. Just saying if their mines aren’t active for the amphib, why would the cruiser in sz 2 be hostel if it starts the turn neutral and isn’t attacked.
You announce the amphibious assault during the movement phase, as you move the transport(s). Since all movement occurs simultaneously, any hostile act taken during the movement phase affects all movement in that phase. As a result, the transport(s) could not move through any US ships blocking their way. The mines are active (see previous post), as they are rolled for at the end of the movement phase.
This is not how I understand the rules. Morocco is a British colony and thus can’t be taken over by the USA.
Morocco is a French colony and can’t be taken over by the USA (unless being recaptured from the Central Powers while Paris is enemy-held). However, the question concerned Spanish Morocco, which is a colony of neutral Spain, and thus fair game for both sides.
Thank you. Yes, I meant French, but I didn’t notice the territory in question was Spanish-Morocco. Sorry for the confusion.
