not many folks playing alpha 2 anymore.
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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I know this is unsportsmanly but I have a question:
Suppose you have a couple ships and a carrier with planes. In the sea zone adjacent to you there is a very large enemy fleet, and in a land territory adjacent to the sea zone on the other side of the mega fleet there is an important target that you desperately need to kill with your planes (e.g. you are in z79, enemy fleet is in z39, and in Burma there is a single infantry you want to kill so it doesn’t retake India after you liberate it). I know it may be unethical, but would it be legal to attack the mega fleet with something that is very unlikely to sink it but that could sink it (e.g. 1 destroyer against a dozen carriers) and suicide your planes against the soft target, claiming that your intention was that after your destroyer heroically sinks the mega fleet (by rolling all 1s against straight 6s in 50+ rounds of dice rolls which could happen :roll: ), your plan is to ncm the carrier in there (z38) and allow the planes to land? Also, if the destroyer fails to sink the mega fleet and the carrier can’t go there can it run away in the other direction and let the planes crash? Would such an unethical move be legal?
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yes this move is totally legal, and I think very clever in the right circumstances
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Legal AND ethical
There is a similar example in the actual rule book.
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Thank you. :evil:
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Can the china fighter land in Kwangtung and in Burma?
I mean yes because it is original china territory and china can also move units there so it is also allowed? -
Can the china fighter land in Kwangtung and in Burma?
I mean yes because it is original china territory and china can also move units there so it is also allowed?Yes, the Chinese fighter can move into Kwangtung and Burma. Even if Britain isn’t at war with Japan.
However, Burma and Kwangtung aren’t original Chinese territories. They’re original British territories.
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China can take temporary control of Burma and/or Kwangtung if it recaptures them from the Axis while India is Axis-held.
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I don’t have access to a 2nd edition Pacific rule book.
My 1st edition rule book says “Kwangtung and Burma are special cases. While they are not Chinese territories AND CANNOT BE CONTROLLED BY CHINA, Chinese forces can attack Axis units there and occupy them…. …These are the only non-Chinese territories that Chinese units can occupy.”
Emphasis added.
So did the rule change somewhere along the line since the OOB rule book?? Because I only see one way to interpret this.
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From the 1st edition errata:
Page 9, China Rules: The second sentence of the fourth paragraph should read “While they are not Chinese territories, Chinese forces can move into them, but China cannot control them, unless India is under Axis control and China recaptures them from the Axis.”
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Is that errata in addition to the FAQ? I have the FAQ dated May 10, 2010 but no errata.
Can you provide a link again? ThanksIn the meantime, I’ll write that rule about-face in my rule book so I don’t make the same mistake again, and will delete the errant post to avoid confusing players
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It is here.
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Question : Here’s the situation : It’s the US turn. The Germans have a sub present in a seazone and that’s the only enemy warship present in that seazone. The Brits also have a sub in that seazone. The US wants to conduct an amphibious assault from that seazone w/only US transports. Does the Brit sub count as an escorting warship. Or, does the US have to provide the escorting warship b/cuz it’s the US turn.
I know in the rules it states that a transport(s) wishing to conduct an amphibious assault from a seazone containing enemy subs must be escorted by a friendly warship. But, what defines friendly? Is it any friendly power that is allied w/your side and at war w/your enemies. Or, does the power whose turn it is have to provide that escorting warship?
Where does it state this in the 2nd edition rules?
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Question : Here’s the situation : It’s the US turn. The Germans have a sub present in a seazone and that’s the only enemy warship present in that seazone. The Brits also have a sub in that seazone. The US wants to conduct an amphibious assault from that seazone w/only US transports. Does the Brit sub count as an escorting warship. Or, does the US have to provide the escorting warship b/cuz it’s the US turn.
You have to have your own (USA) warship. I know for sure because Krieghund has clarified this before
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Does the Brit sub count as an escorting warship. Or, does the US have to provide the escorting warship b/cuz it’s the US turn.
And to provide further clarification, you are exactly right here. The issue is that when a nation attacks it always does so solo and can not count the presence of other friendly units. You only get to count your allies when you defend. For this same reason, if you attack with a Carrier that has planes on it belonging to an ally, those planes don’t participate in the battle but they get to be sunk if the Carrier is hit and they can’t land elsewhere.
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@Eggman:
if you attack with a Carrier that has planes on it belonging to an ally, those planes don’t participate in the battle but they get to be sunk if the Carrier is hit and they can’t land elsewhere.
With your further clarification, you provided us with further confusion.
Guest planes do NOT sink if the carrier is hit (once). They CAN’T land elsewhere. They’re not in the air.
If the carrier is hit, guest fighters are trapped on board until the carrier is repaired. If the carrier is sunk, the fighter is lost - it does not have an opportunity to land anywhere else. -
@Eggman:
when a nation attacks it always does so solo and can not count the presence of other friendly units.
Technically incorrect.
As Krieghund has pointed out,
Friendly “units” include air bases and naval bases, whose presence CAN be counted.
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Friendly “units” include air bases and naval bases, whose presence CAN be counted.
You’re right, I should have explicitly excluded facilities, which I don’t consider
unitsas such, but sometimes the rules do.You’re also right about the units-as-cargo thing, which appears on page 31 of the 2e manual if anybody is curious:
A damaged carrier can’t conduct air operations, which means that no air units may take off from or land on it. Any guest air units that were on board the carrier as cargo at the time when it was damaged are trapped onboard and can’t leave, attack, or defend until the carrier is repaired.I can imagine the odds of that rule actually needing to be used to be on a par with a player getting permission to move units through a currently-neutral-but-will-eventually-be-hostile straight/canal.
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If an Allied player attacks Japanese units in or declares an amphibious assault from one of these sea zones, the Japanese player can announce at the beginning of this phase that he or she intends to launch one or more kamikaze strikes in that sea zone. This is in the rule book for kamikazes but I’m confused about how it works for amphibious assaults.
I’m a little unsure about how this is supposed to work, so I will give an example to see how it works. The sea zone around Philippines has a kamikaze symbol and is owned by the allies. ANZAC has a transport and cruiser there and they load up a transport for and amphibious assault on Java, taking both the cruiser and transport from the Philippines. An ANZAC aircraft carrier comes from Queensland to join the assault on Java and an ANZAC battleship comes from Sumatra to bombard the coast in Java.
So I have a few questions about this situation. Obviously there is no kamikaze marker around Java, but there is around the Philippines where the transport was loaded. Which ships can Japan opt to use kamikazes on in the sea zone around Java? The assault starts from a kamikaze zone but only the cruiser left from that sea zone with the kamikaze symbol. Can Japan kamikaze a ship that joins an amphibious assault if that ship didn’t leave a zone with a kamikaze symbol in it? Is the act of loading transports in a sea zone with a kamikaze symbol what activates kamikazes for the purpose of amphibious assaults?
One other question about this rule as well. If there are no Japanese sea units in a sea zone with a kamikaze symbol in it, and one of the allies does an amphibious landing from a sea zone that does not contain the kamikaze symbol, can Japan use any kamikazes against any eligible ships that accompany the amphibious assault? -
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Kamikazes are only used in the sea zones that are being attacked, or the sea zones where the attacker is looking to unload ground units.
In your example, it is completely irrelevant where all the attacking ships and other units are coming from. All that matters is there is no kamikaze symbol at Java, so kamikazes are a non-issue in your example.
No Japanese units are needed for kamikaze attacks.
A single kamikaze prevents ALL bombardment of all cruisers and battleships from that zone for that turn, as long as (at least) 1 kamikaze is used up.
No kamikazes can be launched at all unless the attacker has a surface warship in the kamikaze sea zone.If you have any follow up questions, feel free to ask.
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