A lot of posters seemed stunned at this scenario, never scene it ever happen or even could happen. Now that I mulled it over last night and looked at the rules and so forth it is very obvious to me why no one has ever scene this scenario. Because the scenario makes no logical sense.
Italy DOW on Russia and moves in 2 tanks into Eastern Poland.
Russia is now at war with Italy and can DOW on Germany at the start of their next turn, turn 3.
Germany on Turn 3 does not DOW on Russia and just non combats into Eastern Poland.
Russia at the start of Turn 3 DOW on Germany and off we go.
There is no logical reason why Russia would not DOW on Germany at the start of Turn 3, none.
Heck you could argue that it makes no logical sense that Germany did not DOW on Russia at the start of G3 since Italy brought Russia into the war and Russia WILL DOW on Germany on R3.
From my perspective, if I was planning on doing a G3 Barbarossa AND I wanted to drive towards the south, then yes, it makes sense to not DOW. My stack will be together except for the minimum required mobile units and maybe 1 AAA in Poland so Russia doesn’t attack Poland to get their NO for occupying an Axis territory. But E. Poland will be real strong because the German air will be there and maybe bombers will also be in range of a raid on the Moscow factory. Also, 5 IPCs is more income than I’d probably get as Germany on the 1st turn.
There are a few disadvantages of course. 1, Russian blockers can’t be attacked. 2, the Scandinavian units are behind. But for me that’s ok, I just use them to lay siege anyways. I never expect to get Moscow on turn 6 anymore. I assume that the UK/Anzac and that lone French fighter are going to get to Moscow.Â
YG's G40 Invitational - Rule Clarifications Thread
GRASSHOPPER’S G40 INVITATIONAL RULE CLARIFICATION THREAD
This is a thread dedicated to those attending and playing in Grasshopper’s G40 Invitational tournament in Toronto Canada this Fall. During game play on September 23rd, 24th, and 25th… there will be many requests for rule clarifications which should be asked here where rule deputies on duty can give fast, and accurate answers.
This thread will remain locked until the weekend of the event.
Stickied and unlocked - good luck and have fun!
Forum users wanting to comment (not related to the purpose of this thread as described by YG) on the event are kindly requested to do it either
or in one of the other event-related threads inside the “Events”-forum (http://www.axisandallies.org/forums/index.php?board=31.0).
Urgent answer needed…
The United Kingdom DOW on Japan attacked Japan ships UK 1, if Japan attacks UK units on Hong Kong on J2, will this bring the Americans into the War?
There is a debate due to the wording on Page 11 of the Pacific 1940 rule book in the declaring war description box, about the last 2 sentences.
You mean the UK declared war on Japan on UK1?
Then, No. America can only enter, if Japan DW on them now. Which, I am guessing, has not happened. If it so wishes, Japan can fight the UK and Anzac for two more turns, without fear of the US entering a state of war. Is a perfect scenario for Japan, I fear. And helps Germany/Italy on the other side of the map.
Just to add the quote of another important (apart from the box on page 11) rule here :
The United States may not declare war on any Axis power unless an Axis power either declares war
on it first or captures London or any territory in North America, or Japan makes an unprovoked declaration of war against the
UK or ANZAC, after which it may declare war on any or all Axis powers on its following turn.
When it came to Japan’s second turn, Japan alread has been at war due to the DOW of UK during UK1.
So the highlighted requirement does not match either.
Thank you guys, very helpful.