A lot of posters seemed stunned at this scenario, never scene it ever happen or even could happen. Now that I mulled it over last night and looked at the rules and so forth it is very obvious to me why no one has ever scene this scenario. Because the scenario makes no logical sense.
Italy DOW on Russia and moves in 2 tanks into Eastern Poland.
Russia is now at war with Italy and can DOW on Germany at the start of their next turn, turn 3.
Germany on Turn 3 does not DOW on Russia and just non combats into Eastern Poland.
Russia at the start of Turn 3 DOW on Germany and off we go.There is no logical reason why Russia would not DOW on Germany at the start of Turn 3, none.
Heck you could argue that it makes no logical sense that Germany did not DOW on Russia at the start of G3 since Italy brought Russia into the war and Russia WILL DOW on Germany on R3.
Hi PainState,
From my perspective, if I was planning on doing a G3 Barbarossa AND I wanted to drive towards the south, then yes, it makes sense to not DOW. My stack will be together except for the minimum required mobile units and maybe 1 AAA in Poland so Russia doesn’t attack Poland to get their NO for occupying an Axis territory. But E. Poland will be real strong because the German air will be there and maybe bombers will also be in range of a raid on the Moscow factory. Also, 5 IPCs is more income than I’d probably get as Germany on the 1st turn.
There are a few disadvantages of course. 1, Russian blockers can’t be attacked. 2, the Scandinavian units are behind. But for me that’s ok, I just use them to lay siege anyways. I never expect to get Moscow on turn 6 anymore. I assume that the UK/Anzac and that lone French fighter are going to get to Moscow.Â
Legal Move?
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The scenario is this:
On Round 3, Japan moved two destroyers into sea zone 25 on its turn.
Then, after that but also on round 3, the U.S. moved a destroyer into SZ 25 as well as a noncombat move since Japan and the U.S. were not yet at war. During the Collect Income phase of this U.S. turn, however, they are finally able to declare war on Japan and they do so.
On Round 4, Japan moves a battleship, 3 cruisers and 2 subs from SZ 6 to SZ 25 to conduct combat on the U.S. destroyer. The two Japanese destroyers from the Round 3 noncombat move are still in SZ 25, but the Japanese player decides they are not going to be part of the combat in the sea zone.
Then, after the Conduct Combat phase is completed, Japan then moves those two destroyers that did not make a combat move and were not involved in the conduct combat phase and they make a noncombat move out of SZ 25 and move to another sea zone.
So, is this allowed?
Can the attacking power, in this case Japan, choose which sea units to will attack in the SZ 25 battle? Particularly since the 2 destroyers that moved in SZ 25 did so during the noncombat move of the previous round and the rules stipulate that if a non-hostile SZ becomes hostile – which usually happens because of new ships being deployed by a power with which you’re at war – the sea units in that sea zone have the option of leaving the sea zone.
Thanks.
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The scenario is this:
On Round 3, Japan moved two destroyers into sea zone 25 on its turn.
legal
Then, after that but also on round 3, the U.S. moved a destroyer into SZ 25 as well as a noncombat move since Japan and the U.S. were not yet at war. During the Collect Income phase of this U.S. turn, however, they are finally able to declare war on Japan and they do so.
legal as u.s.a. and japan are not at war, and u.s.a did not end their moves in a seazone touching a japanese territory.
On Round 4, Japan moves a battleship, 3 cruisers and 2 subs from SZ 6 to SZ 25 to conduct combat on the U.S. destroyer. The two Japanese destroyers from the Round 3 noncombat move are still in SZ 25, but the Japanese player decides they are not going to be part of the combat in the sea zone.
Then, after the Conduct Combat phase is completed, Japan then moves those two destroyers that did not make a combat move and were not involved in the conduct combat phase and they make a noncombat move out of SZ 25 and move to another sea zone.
the japanese player can combat move new units into sz25 for battle.
the japanese player can not leave the destroyers in sz25 without participating in the combat.
the japanese player can move the destroyers out of sz25 in the combat move phase to avoid combat. this is also true if you have a navy in a sz and your opponent, that you are at war with, builds a naval unit into the sz making it contested. -
I believe the rules state that if two powers share a sea zone while neutral, but becomes hostile due to a declaration of war. The ships of the power who’s turn is next must fight or leave the sea zone during the combat phase. So the way I see it… Japan could move the 2 destroyers during the combat phase as required, fight the American ships with different units, and than move the destroyers back into 25 during the non combat phase after the zone has been cleared. However, don’t take my word on that, the combat phase movement out of a shared hostile zone may end the movement for such ships in the same turn due to extended maximum movement of ships during 1 turn. I would wait for a more official answer.
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Allweneedislove is correct.
@Young:
So the way I see it… Japan could move the 2 destroyers during the combat phase as required, fight the American ships with different units, and than move the destroyers back into 25 during the non combat phase after the zone has been cleared. Â
Nope. Sea (and land) units that move in combat movement and/or participate in combat may not move in noncombat movement.





