It is indeed a very old topic, but I just got intrigued by the possibility to help the Axis hold Africa as soon as J2. The problem is - how do you think it could work?
G1 normally sees an attack on Anglo-Egypt with 1 Arm, 1 Inf, plus whatever forces from the bid , normally 1 extra Arm or Art or 2 Inf, plus the fighters from Balkans, Ukraine and Bomber from Germany (depending on how much AF Germany dedicates to sink the British DD off Egypt and R1, possibly destroying the German Fgt in Ukraine). Not to forget the Arm, Inf from SEU via Trn. Britain can usually retake using 2 Inf from India and 1 Inf from Trans-Jordan, plus the Indian-SZ fighter and Bomber from UK. So on J1 Anglo-Egypt is British, the Jap fighters can’t land there. On J1, japanese fighters can’t land on newly occupied territories (India, eg.), so you would have to bring your CV up, which isn’t neccessarily a good choice, as there should be other things to do for the carrier (and especially the fighters) on J1, depending on the british move. Additionally, no japanese fighter bound for Anglo-Egypt in J2 can take part in any battle in J2, except for India (if UK goes strong for Africa, it has to abandon it, then you don’t need the Fgt anyways), but that reduces Japans offensive capabilities in China or Siberia. Besides, if there actually IS the possibility to land those jap fighters in Egypt on J2 (ie Germany holding it after B2), Germany is out of the worst in Africa anyways. B2 comes before J2, and if Britain doesn’t retake Egypt again on B2 (with Persian Inf that came to Trans-Jordan B1 and South African Inf ferryed to Egypt plus Fgt from CV in SZ34), there is no need for additional japanese fighter-defense in Egypt anyway.