Posts made by genken

@panther Thank you very much panther…

@ampdrive Thank you ampdrive. So in 1942 it would be done on NCM even though sz 15 was hostile at the beginning of the turn?

@ampdrive No enemy ships in sz 35. This is round one…

I am not clear on this move. I am playing the allies in Spring 1942. Still in round 1. I have the UK original carr with 1 fght, 1 cruiser and 1 transport in sz 35. My good buddy opponent (axis) failed to take Egypt on his first try. He does have his Bttl and transport in sz 15 after destroying the UK destroyer. I want to attack these with the bomber from London along with the carr, fght and cruiser from sz 35. Can I take my transport along for the combat move and unload 1 or 2 infantry into Eqypt (which still belongs to UK)? I looked in the rulebook. On page 13 it states “If a transport encounters hostile surface warships (not enemy submarines and/or transports) AFTER it begins to move (not counting the sea zone it started in), its movement for that turn ends, and it must stop there and conduct sea combat.” So do you interpret this as being part of a combat move with the consideration being that if the UK force is destroyed, the transport and all of its cargo is as well? If not destroyed, I can offload my infantry into Egypt even though this is not an amphibious assault?

@krieghund Thanks krieghund…

We have resumed playing Spring 1942 after playing 5 other versions of AA. We have seen discrepancies with different versions of the setups. Can someone provide me with the latest setup cards for AA Spring 1942??

@krieghund Thank you very much Krieghund. This makes sense…

@barnee Thank you very much Barnee. This makes sense…

We have just started a new War. I am Allies. If I declare war on Germany/Italy (at Collect Income 3rd round) but not on Japan I have read in the forums that US would collect it’s wartime income. My question is this: If US does not attack Japan or declare war on it is the “unprovoked declaration of war against UK or ANZAC” (Page 9 in Pacific Rules) rule still in force? Would US still collect 30 IPC’s if Japan performs this unprovoked attack?

@panther Thank you very much Panther. This answered my question. Now I’ll have to roll the bones and see what happens…

We are involved in a great battle in the Global 1940 game. I am Allies and I have just placed an IC in Norway for the US. In response my learned opponent has placed 2 BTTL, 1 CRU, 1 DEST and 3 Trans in sz 112 for Ger. I have the units to attack with US and then UK but it will be close. My question is this: I will be placing at least 2 US BTTL for my 1st deployment. Can I place one in sz 113 so he can’t pass through the straights with the trans to attack Norway??

Thank you very much Panther. This clarifies the question.

Could one use a portion of their navy to clear a hostile sea zone and then use the unused portion (on the same turn) to move through the once hostile sea zone and attack another sea zone? For Instance, can Italy clear SZ 92 in order to attack ships in SZ 91 in the same turn. I have read this question posed by CARSONBPARKER on JUL 17, 2017, 1:39 PM but was not able to see the answer he was given.

Thank you very much,
genken

@barnee Thank you very much Barnee. This is the first time this situation has come up, so we wanted to do it right.

In this current game, I am Axis. This question is relevant to me attacking a sole transport in SZ 26 with a CC or DD with US having just a Tactical Bomber in Pearl. If there is no scramble, I will just use DD.

@weddingsinger simon33 M36
Thanks again Simon33, weddingsinger and M36. Much appreciated.

Thank you Simon33, weddingsinger and M36. Much appreciated.

I am Axis in this latest war. I have only tried no DOW on US once. It did work out but I can’t remember how well. US would not collect their 30 IPC, Japan would not come under attack until US4, Japan would still collect 10 IPC, Japan could possibly wipe out China and position for attacks on Anzac, UK and US. If UK or Anzac attacks Japan, would a counterattack bring US into the war? Has anyone tried this?

@Imperious-Leader Thanks Imperious

If strict neutral has not been attacked, can air units fly over it in combat or non-combat turn? I am referring to flying an Italian bomber over Spain.
Thanks…

@genken Thank you very much Panther & Taamvan…

I have checked the rules and I think it is okay to do this, but it is unorthodox. This would happen in J11. US has subs and a BB in SZ 6, I have 2 BB, 1 Carrier, 2 fighters ,1 destroyer and 2 transports in SZ 19. I have a major factory in Kiangsu. I want to attack SZ 6 with my warships and fighters and when it clears move 2 transports (which will load from Japan in SZ 6) through SZ 6 and attack Amur from SZ 5. There are no enemy units in SZ 5. I read at the top of page 15 of Axis-Allies-Pacific-1940-Second-Edition pdf that I could do this in my combat move. Is that a correct interpretation?

Thanks taamvan, DizzKneeLand33, barnee, 655321 and Kreighund. I remember the rule in classic but I had not had an occasion to need it until now. Our current game rages on. US destroyed both carriers in SZ 91 but luftwaffe fighters survived.

I have searched for this on the forums and cannot find a reference to it. In the setup for Germany there are 2 pieces for aircraft carriers. I am axis and I started an Africa Korps movement but US entered the war in turn 1. Now I will need 2 carriers to guard the med in SZ 91 but I also want to place a carrier in SZ 113 to counter a possible Russian attack formulated by my cunning opponent. I can use a plastic chip in SZ 91. Is it permissible in the rules for Germany to have 3 carriers in play?

Thank you barnee, Panther and wittman…