Thank you very much Panther. This clarifies the question.

Could one use a portion of their navy to clear a hostile sea zone and then use the unused portion (on the same turn) to move through the once hostile sea zone and attack another sea zone? For Instance, can Italy clear SZ 92 in order to attack ships in SZ 91 in the same turn. I have read this question posed by CARSONBPARKER on JUL 17, 2017, 1:39 PM but was not able to see the answer he was given.

Thank you very much,
genken

@barnee Thank you very much Barnee. This is the first time this situation has come up, so we wanted to do it right.

In this current game, I am Axis. This question is relevant to me attacking a sole transport in SZ 26 with a CC or DD with US having just a Tactical Bomber in Pearl. If there is no scramble, I will just use DD.

@weddingsinger simon33 M36
Thanks again Simon33, weddingsinger and M36. Much appreciated.

Thank you Simon33, weddingsinger and M36. Much appreciated.

I am Axis in this latest war. I have only tried no DOW on US once. It did work out but I can’t remember how well. US would not collect their 30 IPC, Japan would not come under attack until US4, Japan would still collect 10 IPC, Japan could possibly wipe out China and position for attacks on Anzac, UK and US. If UK or Anzac attacks Japan, would a counterattack bring US into the war? Has anyone tried this?

@Imperious-Leader Thanks Imperious

If strict neutral has not been attacked, can air units fly over it in combat or non-combat turn? I am referring to flying an Italian bomber over Spain.
Thanks…

@genken Thank you very much Panther & Taamvan…