Perhaps a little bit off topic.
No one, except me and my friends, seems to thinks that the rule when a liberated capital falls in enemy hands the very next turn, could be made better. The most obvious example is the differences when Germany liberates an Italian territory or the Capital.
Example1: Germany liberates the Balkans while Rome is occupied. In this case, Germany (axis) collects +3 IPC during Collect Income from the liberated territory, even if the Balkans is re-occupied during the UK turn.
Example2: However, if Germany has liberated the Balkans, and some later turn liberates Rome, then Germany directly hand over all liberated territories and the capital to Italy. Hence, Germany don’t collect any “liberated -Italian-IPC”. However, before the Italian turn, Rome is re-occupied by UK. In this case, Germany (axis) collects 0 IPC from the liberated areas.
This “feels” wrong. I often don’t liberate Rome, if I am not 100% sure to hold it during the UK turn. We think that it shouldn’t be a penalty to liberate a capital, even if you loose Rome to the UK before the Italian turn. The same rule when it comes to collecting IPC, should be applied for both liberated territories and and liberated capitals. We are probably alone on this planet who have been annoyed by this rule, but if there are anyone else out there in cyberspace that also thinks that this rule could be made a little bit better, this is how we cut the Gordian Knot:
House Rule Liberating territories and Capitals
If you capture a territory that was originally controlled by another member of your side, you “liberate” the territory. You do not take control of it; instead, the original controller regains the territory and its income. Antiaircraft guns or industrial complexes in that territory revert to the original controller of the territory.
If the original controller’s capital is in enemy hands at the end of the turn in which you would otherwise have liberated the territory, you capture the territory, collect income from the newly captured territory, and use any industrial complex there until the original controller’s capital is liberated. You also take ownership of any antiaircraft gun in that territory.
When a capital is “liberated”, the liberator still collect income from liberated territories and the newly liberated capital. However, this money is separated from the rest of the income.
If the capital remain liberated until the original controller’s turn, then revert ownership to the original owner of the capital. Territories and industrial complexes that are controlled by the newly liberated capital’s owner but are in the hands of friendly powers also revert ownership. Antiaircraft guns outside the newly liberated capital territory remain under their pre-liberation ownership. The re-liberator must also transfer the previous turn’s income from liberated territories and capital. This money may be used directly by the original controller for Research and/or Purchase Units.
However, if the capital is “re-occupied” by the enemy before the liberated country’s turn, then the preliberator keep control over non-occupied territories. The pre-liberator also incorporate the collected money with the rest of his income. (Note that this money is not transferred to the occupant.)
Edit: I was typing a little bit to fast… The example became complete wrong!!