I still like these charts

@Caesar:

@ShadowHAwk:

@RedIndian:

Ok here are another 3

2. USA : (US in first 3 rounds when not at war)

Beside the “No-China-Rule”
Are any ships and airplanes of the US allowed to go through seazones which are adjacent to Japan controlled islands? Yes, aren’t they? Unless they don’t park there/ end the movment adjacent to a Japan controlled island or territory, right?

I found this a bit weird rule as it also bars US from staging ships near singapore which is a major naval base for the UK.
But the rules are the rules

It is clear the US cannot attack before turn 4 without being attack is G40’s attempted to get AnA closer to historical actions. US was big about Monroe Doctrine. The bigger question is why USSR cannot attack before Turn 4. I know it’s about the pact between Stalin and Hitler but anyone with a brain knew Stalin was going to attack eventually.

I don’t know why you focus on that now but I will give you an answer.
Stalin’s plan was to wait until all the other powers have weaken each other, so that the USSR is able to conquer the world easily. (he said this on a party meeting of the communism in the 20’s)
Anyone who still says the USSR was nearly or ready to attack the Germans by 1941 is a liar!
The Russians weren’t ready (just had their “great purge”) at all. And as I said, they wanted to wait until there would be a chance later on!
So to me the rule does make sense. It makes it more historical. And if Germany invades & conquers UK, you have the chance to declare war. (this covers Stalin’s plan to wait, although no one know what happened if…)

For the Pacific, the USSR was interested in getting their territories back they had lost years ago against Japan.
But they weren’t strong enough at this time to do this without any help. The navy of the Russians in the Pacific wasn’t strong enough to face the Japanese.

Since 1932 there were several boarder conflicts between USSR and Japan in the north of Mandchuko. Finally in April 1941 both countries signed the  “Soviet�Japanese Neutrality Pact”.
Although many Allied partners of those both countries tried to push them into war with eachother (US the USSR against Japan / Germany Japan against Russia), they never came into war. (Russia needed the troops for Europe, Japan against China, US and all the other pacific campaigns)
Ok at the very last days Russia took some territories but only after all other combats in Europe were done!

So as a German I can give you the advice, be careful what you’re saying. This argument pushed by other nations until 1980s / 1990s justified the attack of the Germans in June, 22 1941. As some of the German Veterans say. Those people were told this, just to make this attack a right and justified one. They (Nazis) even said, this was a defending attack, although it was planned by Hitler for other purposes. Anything else is “Propaganda” or in Trump’s days “fake news”

Historians from different nations proofed this.

So no, Stalin doesn’t want to attack Germany that early! Maybe later, but there are no concrete hints for that in comparison to the Nazis.

Thanks for the quick answer!

In this case it’s quite easy to understand what is written in the rules.

I read the Scrabmle passage on page 16 again and without the clarification by Kriegund & Panther
I wouldn’t understand it like this.

Maybe there should be a more detailed description in the rules for the special case I’ve given above.

Hey guys I have another question:

Similar to the “Scrabmle” rule.

Seems to happen not often, but just if.

SBR-defending-units are losing their territory. As they have already participated in combat, they are not allowed to defend the territory.
So can these former “Interceptors” used as casualties during the following combat of the territory (SBR has already been taken) or are these units completely passive?

Are they destroyed or do they have also the ability to move 1 space during NCM?

Hope you got it.

Thanks!!!

Ok thanks again

Ok here are another 3

1. Convoy:

Example:
India captures French-Indo-China from Japan. Japan has surface warships in seazone 36. So is there a convoy-disruption taking place by the collect income phase of the Indian player (or GB Pacific)? Or not, 'cause it has been captured in this turn. So it is too early for taking this step?

In general: If you take control of an enemy territory (with min value of 1) that is adjacent to a seazone , that has a convoy symbol and it contains surface warships of your opponent, will there be a convoy disruption by the collect income phase of the player which just captured this territory in this turn?

2. USA : (US in first 3 rounds when not at war)

Beside the “No-China-Rule”
Are any ships and airplanes of the US allowed to go through seazones which are adjacent to Japan controlled islands? Yes, aren’t they? Unless they don’t park there/ end the movment adjacent to a Japan controlled island or territory, right?

3. USSR (first 3 rounds when not at war)

Is the USSR-player allowed to move landtroops into Northwest Persia during his nom-combat-move when he is neutral/not at war?
No, 'cause as a neutral nation, he is only allowed to do at war, right? (Distinction between Europe & Pacific map)

In general: Is any nation allowed to take controll of a friendly neutral territory in his non-combat-move?
No! Only if this nation is in a state of war, right?

Ok I got it now.

2 for Europe and 1 for Global

@ChromiumAgeCollector:

Are these all up-to-date?  I am going to print a set out for a game on Saturday.

I think so!

Ok thanks!

So, 2 British Inf for Egypt or 1? (As I said, I can’t post a link here)

Danke! Bin hier schon seit Jahren (arent’t you at DAAK, too? I guess I know you from that page)

Ok. I thought it has to move from UK not from the seazone.

So are you 100% sure about this? 'Cause this point was very discussed in my last playing round.

Some other questions:

1. All troops have to retreat into the same seazone or land, right? (At least only to those places that one ship or landunit attacked from)

2. Can I reatreat alhtough I’ve won the battle? No, right? (The purpose is to clear the land free of enemies troops, so that another allied can capture it in his round)

3. Since all attacks happen at the same time, there is no chance to prevent your enemy/oponent from scrambling in the same turn by doing SBRs on his airfields, right?

4. Latest update: I’m quite confused. Is there a new one? Thought in global 1940 2nd ed alpha +3 (latest?) only 1 British Inf in Egypt , not 2 !?
   (I wanted to post a link, but I’m not allowed to -.-)

So thanks again!

Should be the last ones I had.