Posts made by Veldin Car

Once more time… main problem of violating Monroe doctrine is if you play as an Axis, even if you have the best strategy ever, you will  lose. We are not talking about who have better chances for win  between Allies and Comintern or who will benefit more from Monroe doctrine because winner will choose Axis player. If he move majority of forces to USSR then Allies will win, if he move forces to France and try to stall Allies landing, then USSR will win. If Axis player goes to defensive position and try to make  ˝fortress˝ Europe, believe me that fortress  will crumble very fast. In that scenario chances are same for both factions (Allies and Cominter). At best Allies and Comintern can breed them for some later goals in game but Axis will never have more victory point than them.

So, if anybody have a strategy/scenario where Axis can WIN if Monroe doctrine is violated I would like to hear it.

@Rank:

2 ways to solve this problem for the axis

1 house rule this section out of the game. –-> Probably the best option for this

2 destroy Russian navy before this can happen. Gets Russia in faster but keeps US out.––> USSR does not need navy for this, only what they need to do is  declare war (USA reference sheet; Monroe doctrine). Even if they must attack one of countries in S.America with some unit, then you have every game where Germany in January 1939 are going to fight on two fronts. You have USSR with full economy on one side and France and Britain on other side (because if you want to get USSR you must attack Poland). And you dont have Hungary, Romania and Bulgaria because Paris didnt fall. Oher option is to beat France but then you cant get USSR fast because USSR will get Romania, Poland, Baltic State  before you and have more IPP than Germany. Also, Allies an Comintern are not in war with each other and they can lend lease mutually.

Serapis you read my mind!

But there are two ways when Axis can win the game:

1. They have enormous luck on dices
2. Allies and Cominter players are complete idiots.

@HBG:

It is says: One side may claim victory when all opposing forces have been eliminated from the
six Spanish peninsula land zones (not including overseas islands and colonies).

Does this mean that nationalists do not have to declare victory if they do not want to or nationalists automatically win as soon as there are no more Republicans regardless of whether they want or not? (there are still Republicans territory)

Good question, and I think a better intepretation of the rule is that the Spanish Civil War ends at this point, there is no �option� to claim as the word �may� seems to indicate.

Example: The Republican intentionally make suicide attack to lose all units before the German attack on Russia and theirs aligning of Nationalists and Republicans. So Spain become Nationalists and they will Align with Germany at the
end of combat phase if the Axis have possession of either London or both Gibraltar and the Suez Canal. One strategy I have seen is the Germans stall the war out so that both sides Align and as soon s they do the Germans whack Gibraltar from Spain.   Certainly viable although later in the game Spain is the first place hit by the US or Britain.

@Veldin:

It is says: One side may claim victory when all opposing forces have been eliminated from the
six Spanish peninsula land zones (not including overseas islands and colonies).

Does this mean that nationalists do not have to declare victory if they do not want to or nationalists automatically win as soon as there are no more Republicans regardless of whether they want or not? (there are still Republicans territory)

Example: The Republican intentionally make suicide attack to lose all units before the German attack on Russia and theirs aligning of Nationalists and Republicans. So Spain become Nationalists and they will Align with Germany at the
end of combat phase if the Axis have possession of either London or both Gibraltar and the Suez Canal.

Thank you.

It is says: One side may claim victory when all opposing forces have been eliminated from the
six Spanish peninsula land zones (not including overseas islands and colonies).

Does this mean that nationalists do not have to declare victory if they do not want to or nationalists automatically win as soon as there are no more Republicans regardless of whether they want or not? (there are still Republicans territory)

Example: The Republican intentionally make suicide attack to lose all units before the German attack on Russia and theirs aligning of Nationalists and Republicans. So Spain become Nationalists and they will Align with Germany at the
end of combat phase if the Axis have possession of either London or both Gibraltar and the Suez Canal.

When Japan use sneak attack, can he choose strategic bombing raids for one of its battle?