Yes, damaged battleships can bombard.
A single attacking warship (or any unit with an attack value of 1+) in a sea zone with just enemy transports will destroy all the transports. The undefended transports rule is there so you don’t have to keep rolling the dice to finish a battle that has only one possible outcome - the destruction of all the transports.
You can keep hitting them, but they can’t hit you back. It might take you ten additional rounds of combat, but eventually you will roll the number of hits needed. No point rolling the dice, just remove the transports.
When you’re close to taking Sydney as a final VC, u’ll find yourself producing over 90 IPC’s hehe… The trick with the US is to destroy Japan’s Navy piece by piece. This allows Hawaii and Sydney to be safe from a Japanese invasion wich denies them victory. U’ll find that the caroline islands are also very important. This gives a 1-turn passage into mainland China where you can almost land anywhere and create a gap in that japanese front (or, even better, if the japanese player built an IC, to take it away :)), and please land before India is captured.
Thanks guys…my friend and I believe this rule is huge for Japan since it allows Japan to build fully loaded carriers quite easily at crucial times in the game, so many extra planes that can land on new carriers.
Makes it tough on the Allies whenever they get in close.
US turn 2
Japan isn’t at war with anyone, except China.
Japan has a transport in SZ 6, with no warships
The US moves their sub into this sea zone
Japan turn 3, they declare war
Does the US sub get to shoot immediately?
Does it get to shoot, if Japan attempts to move the transport?
Can Japan move a surface warship into the sea zone, stop the attack, then load and move the transport?
Excuse me if this has been covered somewhere before, but I’m a newbie on this forum, and cant seem to find it.
Question: On turn J1 or J2…Japan has not and does not DOW anyone. If the Japanese attack an un-occupied(never occupied by UK or ANZAC) Dutch territory, the UK and ANZAC consider that an act of war. Because of this would the US be able to declare war on Japan on US1 or US2? Answer: I say no, because Japan did not declare war on UK or ANZAC. But it is kinda fuzzy and I can see a possible argument for the other side of this…ie…Japan committed an act of war.
Japan must declare war on UK/ANZAC to invade a dutch colony. Upon declaring war with UK/Anzac the US immediately declares war on Japan.
You can only invade a dutch colony without provoking US involvment if UK or Anzac attack Japan first.