Well, maybe not completely done.
Technology developments don’t override other rules unless they specifically say that they do, so having Improved Factory Production doesn’t allow you to build ICs in zero-IPC territories.
i dare you to smite me for hypocrisy :P
ok, i got one more :)
Lets say a japanese AC+2FTR are in Iwo Jima seazone. american combat move :
4 subs attack AC
2TN 2inf 2arm land Iwo Jima.since naval battle must be conducted first, lets assume AC sunk. planes now must land on iwo jima. so they get to defend against amphibious invasion right?
edit: argh i just realized the planes would sink the TN before they could assault… so the 2 TN would need surface battleships… which would mean that the fighters would be destroyed…
I would think that during sea combat the planes would defend but their hits can only go against transport. Then they would land on the island. IMHO this amphibious plan not a good idea and a waste. The attacking sub can only sink the AC and the Transport and their cargo would be automatically sunk by the planes on the AC.
Can the Chinese fighter attack ships within range? The rules talk about occupation of land territories but I don’t see anything about seazones.
@Emperor:
Can the Chinese fighter attack ships within range? The rules talk about occupation of land territories but I don’t see anything about seazones.
no, i believe th FAQ says that the chinese fig can never leave chinese territories even if it returns in the same turn.
If an AC is sunk how many moves do the planes get to find friendly territory?
If an AC is sunk how many moves do the planes get to find friendly territory?
One territory.
depends who is attacking/defending.
10 subs attack 1 AC + 2 ftr > AC sunk > fighters 1 move to land
AC + 2 ftr attack DD > AC/ DD sunk > fighters get normal non combat move
If the carrier and fighters are defending, they get to move one space after all combats are completed. If they are attacking, they get their remaining movement allowance in noncombat movement, as normal.
Krieghund–there are too many posts to filter through to see if this has already been asked so sorry for a repeat.
Scenario: Japan builds a factory on Manchuria. The U.S captures the factory and holds it. Can they–the US-- now build units there? Does China still get the territory bonus towards its infantry count plus the ability to place men on Manchuria? thx in advance
@Heavy:
Krieghund–there are too many posts to filter through to see if this has already been asked so sorry for a repeat.
Scenario: Japan builds a factory on Manchuria. The U.S captures the factory and holds it. Can they–the US-- now build units there? Does China still get the territory bonus towards its infantry count plus the ability to place men on Manchuria? thx in advance
The US would not be capturing the territory. They would liberate it. The territory would count for its infantry allowance. Since China doesn’t collect IPC they wouldn’t be able to use the factory. Factories cannot be destroyed so it would collect dust untill Germany or Japan retake the territory. Germany would then only be able to use the factory if Japan island would be in Allies hand. One Japan would be liberated the factory would return to Japan control.
You’re mostly right, ElCapitan. However, if Germany or Italy captured the territory from China, they would be able to use the IC normally. It’s no different from Japan taking India and building an IC there, then the UK recapturing it, then Germany taking it. It doesn’t matter who built the IC, only who controls the territory.
You’re mostly right, ElCapitan. However, if Germany or Italy captured the territory from China, they would be able to use the IC normally. It’s no different from Japan taking India and building an IC there, then the UK recapturing it, then Germany taking it. It doesn’t matter who built the IC, only who controls the territory.
Thank you. I thought since Japan was the original owner of the teritory (taken from China before the start of the scenario, that some of the same rules for the IC in Karelia for Allies applied.
Per the FAQ, China is considered to be the original owner of Manchuria and Kiangsu. This works in the same way that the USSR is considered to be the original owner of Belorussia in the '42 scenario, even though Germany starts the game in control of the territory. As a result, control of Manchuria and Kiangsu works in exactly the same way as control of any “normal” Chinese territory. Japan just happens to start out the game controlling them (as an enemy power).
Hi, Krieg, we are in a bit confusing situation. Tim wants enter with his sub in a sz where I have sub, dd, tra but he wants do it in NCM phase, without attacking them. I think he must attack and kill the dd to enter the sz, but he thinks not. I’m not sure of this, just I’ll link you to the game thread
There is a dd in z23, so you must attack it to enter that sz with the sub. You cannot enter there in NCMs unless you kill the dd first
http://www.axisandallies.org/forums/index.php?topic=13098.285
Another thing, can the trannie transport troops if I must leave the sz in case of Tim has right? It must do it in combat phase or in NCM. Thanks
Per the FAQ, China is considered to be the original owner of Manchuria and Kiangsu. This works in the same way that the USSR is considered to be the original owner of Belorussia in the '42 scenario, even though Germany starts the game in control of the territory. As a result, control of Manchuria and Kiangsu works in exactly the same way as control of any “normal” Chinese territory. Japan just happens to start out the game controlling them (as an enemy power).
Thanks for the clarification.
Hi, Krieg, we are in a bit confusing situation. Tim wants enter with his sub in a sz where I have sub, dd, tra but he wants do it in NCM phase, without attacking them. I think he must attack and kill the dd to enter the sz, but he thinks not. I’m not sure of this, just I’ll link you to the game thread
There is a dd in z23, so you must attack it to enter that sz with the sub. You cannot enter there in NCMs unless you kill the dd first
http://www.axisandallies.org/forums/index.php?topic=13098.285
Another thing, can the trannie transport troops if I must leave the sz in case of Tim has right? It must do it in combat phase or in NCM. Thanks
I hadn’t even thought of this until just now. I know you don’t have to move the TRN just because I am there. A sub does not make the sea zone hostile for you. You are free to ignore my sub there for as long as you would like. You should be able to move those boats in either combat or non-combat move as you wish. However, my question would be: IF the DD attacks my sub, does the TRN have to then move in combat move (thus not picking up units unless they unload in hostile territory) either out of the territory or as part of the attack on the sub, or can it do an NCM (moving units to a friendly territory) and the DD does its Attack?
(this all assumes my interpretation of the original question is correct and my sub can be there in the first place :-P )
Yes, you can move a sub into a hostile sea zone in noncombat movement, even if there’s an enemy destroyer there. The destroyer simply keeps the sub from moving on through the sea zone.
The presence of an enemy sub in your sea zone at the beginning of your turn doesn’t necessarily have any effect on your units there, since the sub doesn’t make the sea zone hostile. It depends on how you treat the sub. You can pretend that it isn’t there if you wish, and it will have no effect. However, if you decide to attack it, all of your units in the sea zone must either attack the sub or move away in combat movement. They will not be eligible to move in noncombat movement either way, since they will have either moved in combat movement or participated in combat. Any transports will be able to load units before combat moving, assuming they are participating in an immediate amphibious assault.
In 1942 if you liberate any of the Indies, Borneo, solomons, etc, do their IPC value go to the US or does it revert back to UK?
In 1942 if you liberate any of the Indies, Borneo, solomons, etc, do their IPC value go to the US or does it revert back to UK?
UK
