I’m feeling a bit dumb for asking this, but I haven’t had a chance to play V3 yet (this virus can’t go away soon enough), and something is just dawning on me.
V3 changed the rules for when the Allies can declare war on the Comintern. I think it was a good change, but certainly can change potential strategies. I’m talking about the ability to declare war any time after the USSR takes a territory that doesn’t border USSR home land territory.
I understand that this isn’t something that is necessarily going to happen the moment the USSR takes something to activate this rule. That wouldn’t benefit the Allies much in a lot of games if it happens too early. But this is possible now, which begs my maybe dumb question(s).
There might be other instances, but these two pop in my head immediately.
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The Spanish Civil War. Say the Repbulicans win the Spanish Civil War. If at some point they become aligned to the USSR, does that automatically mean the Allies can declare war on the Comintern, since Spain doesn’t border USSR home country?
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If using the Turkey at War Expansion. If the USSR ends up controlling Turkey, and then later aligning them, does that automatically give the Allies the ability to declare war on the Comintern?
I suppose the Turkey at war example is somewhat avoidable. If I’m remembering properly, the controlling player doesn’t necessarily have to align Turkey at any point in the game, and can choose to keep them as just a controlled Minor power. This wouldn’t trigger the Allied ability to declare war (unless the rule is for USSR/Comintern control, and not alignment, but I don’t believe that to be the case). But that might affect a Comintern player using this expansion from attempting to control/align Turkey, no? There’s obvously upside to taking control of Turkey, but some players might not find a benefit in simply controlling Turkey without the ability to align and use the full might of USSR resources?
All just thoughts, any input is great!