Playing a game of 1914 and an interesting question came up…
Germany controls Picardy, Lorraine, and Burgundy, and has large stacks on Burgundy and Picardy.
France controls Paris, Bordeaux, Marseilles, and Brest, and has a large stack (~20 inftry) on Paris, but few other units. Hoping to prevent a collapse, Britain has reinforced Brest and Italy has reinforced Marseilles, but there are only 2 infantry on Marseilles and 3 on Brest.
My question is, at what point during the combat phase does a political collapse occur? I know the rules say “immediately,” but I’m wondering if that creates an unintentional advantage for the attacker.
For instance, in this case, Germany can easily overpower the Allied units in Marseilles and Brest, taking control of those TTs for a total of 10 IPCs and forcing a French political collapse. However, they most likely do not have enough to take Paris.
What Germany could do is simply move a single infantry into Paris and use the rest of their units to take Brest and Marseilles. If those two battles are resolved first, they force the collapse and thus the removal of all French units from the board. That means that they’ve sidestepped a large French stack in Paris and taken the capital, previously defended by over 20 units, with a single infantry.
Is this the correct implementation of the rule?