Capital liberation question
If a capital is liberated by an ally, it doesn’t collect income until the end of its next turn right? so if in the same round of play britain liberates france from germany, france doesn’t immediately collect its income. if directly after that italy retakes france, italy doesn’t take france’s ipcs (cause they don’t have any). is this interpretation correct? many thanks
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The liberated capital’s owner would collect IPCs at the end of its turn, so if US liberates France, and italy recaptures Paris, no income would be stolen because France has not had a turn yet.
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So just wait for Germany to take it again, lol
In that case, it would be Germany taking France’s money.
I had a game once where the Axis were losing but recapturing Paris and plundering their treasury actually turned the game around. I was Germany and struggling to capture Moscow. I wasn’t making enough money to pound on the Russians and fend off the Western Allies. The US landed in Normandy and the Brits backed them up. Then they liberated Paris. I had built up enough in W Germany to take it back and that extra income really helped out. Next round I captured Moscow and was able to turn all my attention against USA and UK.
Yes I was very hesitant to liberate it, but in this case Germany and Russia were at a standstill, both trading back the Polish territories and the Soviets making the occasional excursion into Romania/Balkans. In this particular game Germany was able to take France right back, but at the expense of a giving up troops against the Soviets. It lost more in units than the 17 IPCs it gained from taking it. The Soviets captured Berlin two turns later with Paris still under German control. As the US had Japan blockaded, convoyed and strategic bombed, the game was over.