i heard on a show lately that the german army lost 1/4 of all supplies and material that the germans ever produced in the ENTIRE SECOND WAR!
i was like whaaaaaaa?!
is this accurate? it makes sense of a lot of things for me. by number losses of troops alone i always thought that the germans should be able to recoup their losses by their volunteer campaigns in occupied territories, or by forcing human labor in the territories occupied to free up more german men to be put into the wehrmacht.
1/4 of all supplies produced lost is staggering.
makes you wonder why in the hell Hitler didnt allow a tactical retreat from the area after the soviets counterattacked en masse.
the question is this. is the 1/4 loss number accurate?
I think this may be be reference to a line in the “Stalingrad” episode of “The World at War”. Towards the end of the episode, as the narrator describes the German losses in men and equipment at Stalingrad, he says that enough equipment was lost to equip one-quarter of the German army. So it’s not a reference to one-quarter of the equipment produced, which would be a much larger number.