Here’s the thing I want to know: when you’re only playing a game of Europe 1940, what will happen to the Soviet Pacific IPCs? Will a Soviet territory in Europe compensate for their absence, or will they simply be added in to the Soviet national income in Europe 1940?
Interesting question… I guess Russia is the only country this would pertain to because, although Britain and the US have territories on both maps, they would not necessarily need more money, if you follow me. Russia should probably get their full income, because they don’t play like a Britain or US and use half on one side of the globe and one half on the other side.
What about France? They have, what, French Indo-China in Pacific right? Would they get the income for that?
Well, we know the UK has a seperate income from its Pacific territories, including India. As for the United States and France…I’m really not sure.
I wonder if Krieg could enlighten us, but he’d probably get mauled by like 50 men in black, so…