• @Daedelus:

    In a lot of the games I have seen, Russia just leaves 1 Inf. on each boarder territory with Germany.  1 Italian Tank can certainly win against 1 INF.

    Yes but the Russian inf still can kill a tank and so the Italians won’t be able to occupy the territory until later and so Germany would have to capture it and this doesn’t work. Also why risk 3 ipc for a 1 ipc-2 ipc gain? Because this means Su DOWS and uses the reserves behind the front line or in Stalin and Lenin to recapture and Germany + 5 ipc but then SU will get NO because 125 will not be occupied by Axis if Germany plays Sealion


  • @The:

    @Daedelus:

    In a lot of the games I have seen, Russia just leaves 1 Inf. on each boarder territory with Germany.  1 Italian Tank can certainly win against 1 INF.

    Yes but the Russian inf still can kill a tank and so the Italians won’t be able to occupy the territory until later and so Germany would have to capture it and this doesn’t work. Also why risk 3 ipc for a 1 ipc-2 ipc gain? Because this means Su DOWS and uses the reserves behind the front line or in Stalin and Lenin to recapture and Germany + 5 ipc but then SU will get NO because 125 will not be occupied by Axis if Germany plays Sealion

    The original question wasn’t “why,” it was “can you….”  I think the why has been answered earlier in the thread.  Basically it comes down to can you exploit a mistake or a short comming of Russia by doing this.  So sometimes it’s good move, and other times it won’t be.


  • @Krieghund:

    Calvin’s right.

    Kreig must have to have his rulebooks laminated, all the fact finding he has to do for us, lol.

  • '10

    @Krieghund:

    Calvin’s right.

    If Germany were helping to occupy a territory that was originaly Soviet, would that not be an act of war?

  • Official Q&A

    No, it wouldn’t.


  • @Krieghund:

    No, it wouldn’t.

    That sure makes no sense to me, Kev.   :?

    Page 10 in the book states that Germany and Italy is allied, and they have to be in order to share a territory. So how can a neutral be at war with one power but not his allied friend ? It sure dont work that way in the Pacific, if Japan attack neutral DEI, then Japan is suddenly at war with everybody, even neutral USA. And if it was the other way around, that Russia attacked Italy, then I am pretty sure that Russia would automatically be at war with Germany also.

    Come to think about it, when Japan attacked Pearl Harbour dec 7 -41, then Germany and Italy also declared war on USA instantly. If Italy by some odd reason had attacked Russia in 1940, and even through German territories, and even with German soldiers moving in to support the Italian agressors, then I can hardly imagine that Germany would not automatically be at war with Russia.

    If Italy attack neutral Spain, then neutral Sweden, Turkey and Afghanistan is at war with both Germany and Italy.
    But if Italy attack Russia, then only Italy is at war, not Germany.
    If Italy attack USA, is only Italy at war with USA then ? Germany is not ?

  • Official Q&A

    @Razor:

    It sure dont work that way in the Pacific, if Japan attack neutral DEI, then Japan is suddenly at war with everybody, even neutral USA.

    Not immediately.  Japan is only at war with UK/ANZAC.  The US is allowed to declare war on Japan on its next turn.  The same thing applies here.  If Italy declares war on the USSR, the USSR is allowed to declare war on Germany on its next turn, but it is not immediately at war with Germany.

    @Razor:

    And if it was the other way around, that Russia attacked Italy, then I am pretty sure that Russia would automatically be at war with Germany also.

    No, but Germany could declare war on the USSR on its next turn.

    @Razor:

    If Italy attack USA, is only Italy at war with USA then ? Germany is not ?

    Correct.  However, either Germany or USA may declare war on the other on their next turn.

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