A lot of posters seemed stunned at this scenario, never scene it ever happen or even could happen. Now that I mulled it over last night and looked at the rules and so forth it is very obvious to me why no one has ever scene this scenario. Because the scenario makes no logical sense.
Italy DOW on Russia and moves in 2 tanks into Eastern Poland.
Russia is now at war with Italy and can DOW on Germany at the start of their next turn, turn 3.
Germany on Turn 3 does not DOW on Russia and just non combats into Eastern Poland.
Russia at the start of Turn 3 DOW on Germany and off we go.There is no logical reason why Russia would not DOW on Germany at the start of Turn 3, none.
Heck you could argue that it makes no logical sense that Germany did not DOW on Russia at the start of G3 since Italy brought Russia into the war and Russia WILL DOW on Germany on R3.
Hi PainState,
From my perspective, if I was planning on doing a G3 Barbarossa AND I wanted to drive towards the south, then yes, it makes sense to not DOW. My stack will be together except for the minimum required mobile units and maybe 1 AAA in Poland so Russia doesn’t attack Poland to get their NO for occupying an Axis territory. But E. Poland will be real strong because the German air will be there and maybe bombers will also be in range of a raid on the Moscow factory. Also, 5 IPCs is more income than I’d probably get as Germany on the 1st turn.
There are a few disadvantages of course. 1, Russian blockers can’t be attacked. 2, the Scandinavian units are behind. But for me that’s ok, I just use them to lay siege anyways. I never expect to get Moscow on turn 6 anymore. I assume that the UK/Anzac and that lone French fighter are going to get to Moscow.Â
Need help with rules clarification on Germany assault of England
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Need help with the following situation (playing a global game against my son)
At the start of Germany’s turn, Germany controls Scotland while UK holds England. Germany holds Denmark and has a amphibious force in SZ113. UK has a destroyer in SZ112 and nothing in SZ111.Germany is proposing to do the following:
Germany loads tanks and mech inf onto its transports in ZS113 (fr W Ger), moves it’s amphib force into SZ112 which it will kill the UK destroyer. It will then move its amphib force into the open SZ111. It will land the tanks / mech inv who will blitz through Germany-controlled Scotland and into England.Is this ok? Thanks in advance for your expertise!
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No. Once you do a sea battle, all movement stops there. You cannot conduct battle, clear the Sz, then move on to another sz to land ot start another battle. All battles are conducted simotanously during the combat phase.
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So you’re saying that once sea units conduct combat, they cannot move into an unoccupied SZ with their remaining movement?
Thanks.
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So you’re saying that once sea units conduct combat, they cannot move into an unoccupied SZ with their remaining movement?
Thanks.
Correct. There is no remaining movement. Does not matter if it took 1 or two moves to get to the battle. Once battle commences, all navel movement is done.
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Thanks. And if I take SZ111 in sea combat and already held Scotland (as Germany), can I unload my tanks / mech inf into Scotland and blitz them through Scotland and into England as an ‘amphib assault’?
Aaron
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No. If Germany already owns Scotland and you offload units there, that would be done during non-combat. Whether it’s an amphib assault or non-combat, once you offload units, they can’t move until the following turn.