• Customizer

    Now that we have confirmation that mixed or “multinational” forces can defend together, but not attack, it becomes important who gets to control a non-aligned neutral when it is attacked.
    Larry was a bit vague, but lets assume that once a power has controlled the forces of a neutral (i.e. placed its own units there) then that tt becomes its property when liberated, just as if it were originally aligned to it.

    Take the example of Switzerland being attacked by Germany.

    If the UK takes control of Switzerland and survives, then you’re left with maybe a couple of Swiss/UK infantry in a contested tt.

    If France is nominated to make the Swiss rolls, then you get 2 French units left there.

    Why this is now important is that if, on its own turn, France counter-attacks the tt, the survivors get to join in the attack; whereas if they were UK units they’d have to put their feet up, light up their fags, and watch the battle unfold.

    This is how I understand the rule.

    So it really should be fairly obvious who is given the tt; whoever can get troops there the fastest.

    Perhaps it could even be predetermined, with the full alignments divided up as follows:

    France: BELGIUM, CONGO, PORTUGAL, ANGOLA, MOZAMBIQUE

    Britain: ARABIA, Holland, Norway, Denmark, Afghanistan

    Italy: ALBANIA, Switzerland, Greece, Abyssinia

    Russia: ROMANIA, SERBIA, Sweden, Persia

    USA: LIBERIA, Spain, Spanish Morocco, Rio de Oro

    Germany: MEXICO, Holland, Norway, Denmark, Sweden, Abyssinia

    Austria: Switzerland, Spain, Spanish Morocco

    Turkey: BULGARIA, Persia, Afghanistan, Greece

    Presumably enemy-aligned neutrals are controlled by whosoever conquers them.


  • Not sure the US would control Spain… probably France.

  • Customizer

    I wanted to give the poor Yanks something to do…

    Actually I don’t suppose the U.S. and Italy are allowed to control non-aligned neutrals until they are at war.

    Question: if Austria attacks Albania R1 (but doesn’t attack Venice) does this automatically mean a state of war between Austria and Italy, or just that Italian units are used to defend Albania?

    If the latter, Austria could use this loophole to annihilate Albanian units before they have any chance to be supported from Italy. Not that Albania is likely to be worth much - 1 IPC if that.

    It seems strange that Italy cannot transport units to Albania without engaging the Austrian navy; in reality Italy blockaded the Adriatic across the narrows between Apulia and Albania.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Otranto_barrage

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